Đề cương ôn tập kiểm tra cuối học kì II Tiếng Anh 11 - Năm học 2021-2022 - Trường THPT Sơn Động số 3

Nội dung tài liệu: Đề cương ôn tập kiểm tra cuối học kì II Tiếng Anh 11 - Năm học 2021-2022 - Trường THPT Sơn Động số 3

1. TRƯỜNG THPT SƠN ĐỘNG SỐ 3 ĐỀ CƯƠNG ÔN TẬP KIỂM TRA CUỐI HK2 NHÓM TIẾNG ANH Môn: Tiếng Anh 11 Năm học 2021 – 2022 I. HÌNH THỨC KIỂM TRA: - Hình thức kiểm tra: Kết hợp trắc nghiệm và tự luận (tỉ lệ 60% trắc nghiệm tương ứng với 24 câu, mỗi câu 0,25 điểm; 40% tự luận- gồm: cho dạng đúng của động từ, viết lại câu, viết đoạn văn) II. THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI : 45 phút. III. NỘI DUNG Dạng bài Nội dung Nghe Nghe chọn câu trả lời đúng (mỗi câu 4 phương án trả lời) Nghe và điền từ vào ô trống Phát âm Cách phát âm đuôi –(e)s Cách phát âm của phụ âm Chọn đáp án đúng Đại từ quan hệ Câu hỏi đuôi Đại từ quan hệ với giới từ Cụm từ cố định Câu giao tiếp Cụm động từ Từ vựng*2 Từ đồng nghĩa Từ trái nghĩa Cho dạng đúng của động QKĐ/QKHT từ Hiện tại đơn To V/ Ving Câu điều kiện Đọc điền Nghĩa của từ Giới từ Từ loại Nghĩa của từ Đọc hiểu Câu hỏi tìm ý chính Câu hỏi từ vựng Câu hỏi chi tiết Câu hỏi Except/True/ False/Not Viết lại câu Rút gọn mệnh đề quan hệ Bị động kép Câu nhấn mạnh (Cleft sentences) Liên từ (Correlative conjunctions) Viết đoạn văn Chủ đề viết trong HKII 1
2. 2. Bài tập I. PHONETICS: Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others. 1. A. neighbors B. friends C. relatives D. photographs 2. A. fills B. adds C. stirs D. lets 3. A. books B. dogs C. cats D. maps 4. A. biscuits B. magazines C. newspapers D. vegetables 5. A. miles B. words C. accidents D. names 6. A. sports B. plays C. chores D. minds 7. A. walks B. steps C. shuts D. plays 8. A. wishes B. practices C. introduces D. leaves 9. A. father B. anything C. another D. although 10. A. guest B. grateful C. groom D. generation 11. A. close-knit B. well-known C. quickly D. kneel 12. A. children B. character C. changeable D. champion 13. A. humor B. hospitable C. honest D. heavy 14. A. culture B. mutual C. temperature D. computer 15. A. charity B. champion C. champagne D. chopstick 16. A. off B. of C. safe D. knife 17. A. ghost B. night C. eight D. fight 18. A. through B. other C. theatre D. than 19. A. beat B. climb C. debt D. doubt 20. A. photos B. mother C. growth D. brother II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY Choose the word or phrase - A, B, C or D - thatbest completes the sentence. 21. My cousin is very good at _______ people singing with his guitar. A. playing B. accompanying C. beating D. relaxing 22. Susan: “What does your sister like doing in her free time?” Jim: “ ___________” A. That’s a good idea B. She is nice C. She likes reading books D. No, she doesn’t 23. The film about _______ they are talking is fantastic. A. whom B. which C. who D. that 24. He is the man _______ my sister loves. A. Ø B. which C. when D. whose 25. After Gagarin died, his hometown was named _______ him. A. of B. with C. by D. after 26. Your father can cook well, _______? A. can’t he B. doesn’t he C. couldn’t he D. didn’t he 27. During Tet holiday, many people go to pagoda to _______ for good luck. A. require B. receive C. wish D. pray 28. Coal is _______ source of energy because it takes millions of years to make it. A. alternative B. changeable C. nonrenewable D. renewable 2
3. 29. At present, the main source of energy is fossil fuels, and people are searching for ______ sources, such as wind, sun or water. A. easy B. alternative C. exhausted D. expensive 30. Lan: “Where do you keep your stamps?” – Minh: “_______” A. Since I was five. B. I like collecting stamps. C. In a small album. D. That’s right. III. Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each of the numbered blanks. (1.0 point) Once there were lots of giant pandas in the mountains of Western China. Today they are becoming extinct. The reason is that they cannot find enough food. Pandas eat bamboo leaves. The problem is that the bamboo grows very (31) ______. In fact, it can take a bamboo ten years to grow from a seed to a big plant. Some types of bamboo have seeds only once every 60 years. Pandas must wait many years for their food to grow. While the bamboo is growing, pandas do not have enough leaves (32) ______. China and the World Wildlife Fund are trying to save the panda. In 1979, they set up special parks (33) ______ pandas live. Scientists come here to study the panda’s eating and mating habits. By learning more about the panda’s habits, they can save it from (34) ______. 31. A. slow B. fast C. slowly D. quickly 32. A. eat B. eating C. ate D. to eat 33. A. whose B. where C. which D. when 34. A. extinction B. appearance C. efforts D. environment IV. Supply the correct tenses of verbs: 35. The hobby I like most is (play)___________________________ my guitar. 36. The children (attend)______________________ that school receive a good education. 37. He was the first man (rescue)__________________________from the burning building. 38. If I were you, I (not buy) __________________ this secondhand car. 39. The Asian Games (take place)________________________every four years. 40. The world always (change) ________________. Things never (stay) _______________ the same. 41. Ron (be) _________in London at the moment. He (stay) ________________ at the Hilton Hotel. He often (stay) _________ at the Hilton Hotel when he (be) _________ in London 42. I (not, know) ________________ she was ill last week. If I (know) ________________, I (visit) ________________ her 43. After they (leave) ________________, we (sit) _________ down and rested. 44. He (write) __________ his report for two days, but he (not, finish) ________________ it yet. 45. That was a very strange question (ask) ........................... . V. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. We humans create such a lot of rubbish! Between 1992 and 2008 household waste increased by 16%. A person produces under half a ton each year. The two common ways of treating most of the waste are dusting and burying. Most of this is taken away by dustmen and buried in enormous landfill sites or burned in incinerators - both of these actions can be dangerous for the environment. Is all our rubbish really rubbish? If you think about it, much of what we throw away could be used again. It makes sense to reuse and recycle our rubbish instead of just trying to solve the problem of where to put it! Encouragingly rates of recycling have increased so that we recycle 35 % of our household rubbish, although we could recycle up to 80%. Much of our waste is made up of glass, metal, plastic and paper. Our natural resources such as trees, oil, coal and aluminum are used up in enormous amounts to make these products, and 3
4. the resources will one day be completely used up. Thus, in order to preserve natural resources we must cut down on energy use. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer these questions 46. How much rubbish does a person produce each year? A. under 500 kilos B. exactly half a ton C. more than half a ton D. over 5000 kilos 47. What are the two common ways of treating most of the waste? A. reusing and burning B. reusing and burying C. dusting and burning D. dusting and burying Decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F) 48. _____ Small amounts of natural resources are used to make glass, metal, plastic and paper. 49. _____ We must cut down on energy use so as to preserve natural resources. VI. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, beginning with the given words or basing on the instructions given. (2.0 points): 50. The song “Ghen Co Vy” was composed by Khac Hung. (using cleft sentence focusing on the underlined part) _________________________________________________________________________ 51. People say that he has some beautiful houses in Ho Chi Minh City.  He ______________________________________________________________________ 52. My friend didn’t write and she didn’t phone.  My friend neither __________________________________________________________ 53. Lan enjoys watching films in her free time. She studies in my class. (Combine the sentences, using Relative Pronoun)  _________________________________________________________________________ PHẦN II: SPEAKING SPEAKING TEST Part 1: Let’s introduce yourself. (3 points) (Name, age, class, school, family, hobbies, dream job, etc.) Part 2: Topic (7points) 1. Talk about your hobby. 2. Talk about your favourite sport. 3. Talk about your hometown. 4. Talk about the advantages of renewable energy. 5. Talk about the measures to protect our environment. === THE END === 4