Đề thi thử THPT QG Tiếng Anh 11 (Lần 4) - Mã đề 235 - Năm học 2015-2016 - Trường THPT Ngô Sĩ Liên (Có đáp án)

Nội dung tài liệu: Đề thi thử THPT QG Tiếng Anh 11 (Lần 4) - Mã đề 235 - Năm học 2015-2016 - Trường THPT Ngô Sĩ Liên (Có đáp án)

1. SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC GIANG ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 4 TRƯỜNG THPT NGÔ SĨ LIÊN Năm học 2015 – 2016 Môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 Đề thi gồm 06 trang Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề) Họ và tên thí sinh: Số báo danh: Lớp: 11A .. Mã đề: 235 (Học sinh làm phần trắc nghiệm 64 câu vào phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm và phần tự luận vào giấy thi.) SECTION A: FROM QUESTION 1 TO QUESTION 64 (8 points) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: “What’s the matter? You don’t look very well.” – “I feel a little _________.” A. out of the blue B. under the weather C. out of order D. under the impression Question 2: With our senses, we perceive everything ________. A. is around us B. that is around us C. whom is around us D. whose is around us Question 3: The primary causes of species extinction result ________habitat destruction, commercial exploitation and pollution. A. in B. of C. for D. from Question 4: Laws have been introduced to _________ the killing of endangered animals. A. advise B. decrease C. prohibit D. encourage Question 5: Ann could not speak Chinese and ________ could John. A. either B. also C. neither D. so Question 6: In beach volleyball, Indonesia defeated Thailand in straight sets to take men's gold ________. A. present B. award C. medal D. reward Question 7: Near the park is a famous landmark _________ the Unification Palace. A. whose name B. called C. is D. is called Question 8: It was on his birthday ________ he was presented this precious book by his father. A. when B. that C. which D. what Question 9: - "Who wrote the poem?" - "It is said _________ written by one of the Bronte sisters" A. to be B. to being C. to have been D. to having been Question 10: The salary of a computer programmer is ________ a teacher. A. as twice much as B. as much as twice of C. twice as high as that D. twice as high as that of Question 11: They don’t let anyone enter the area. A. Nobody is let to enter the area B. Nobody is allowed to enter the area. C. Nobody is allowed entering the area. D. The area is not allowed entering Question 12: Not only my son but also I ________ tired from walking so far. A. is B. are C. am D. were Question 13: We bought some __________ A. old lovely German glasses B. German old lovely glasses C. German lovely old glasses D. lovely old German glasses Trang 1/6 - Mã đề thi 235
2. Question 14: Ken and Laura are saying goodbye to each other after going to LOTTE Center. And they are going to have a date with each other later. Laura: “Well, it’s getting late. Maybe we could get together sometime.” Ken: “_______” A. Nice to see back you. B. Take it easy. C. Sounds good. I’ll give you a call. D. Yes, I’ve enjoyed it. Question 15: Had I studied harder, I___________ better in the last exam. A. would do B. would have done C. had done D. wouldn’t have done Question 16: I suggest the room ___________ before Christmas. A. be decorated B. is decorated C. were decorated D. should decorate Question 17: Many species of plants and animals are in___________ of extinction. A. dangerous B. endangered C. danger D. dangerously Question 18: The last person ___________ the room must turn off the lights. A. to leave B. who leave C. that leave D. all are correct Question 19: Today, Minh watches Mai playing badminton in Phu Dong Health Tournament. During the break, he meets her and encourages her to play with flying colors. Minh: “How well you are playing!” Mai: “_______” A. Say it again. I like to hear your words. B. I think so. I am proud of myself. C. Thank you too much. D. Many thanks. That is a nice compliment. Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined words in each of the following sentences. Question 20: As tourism is more developed, people worry about the damage to the flora and fauna of the island. A. fruits and vegetables B. flowers and trees C. plants and animals D. mountains and forests Question 21: My other pursuits include listening to music, reading and gardening. A. chases B. occupations C. specialties D. hobbies Question 22: The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the SEA Games took place. A. organized B. impressed C. participated D. defended Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined words in each of the following sentences. Question 23: “That is a well-behaved boy whose behaviour has nothing to complain about” A. good behavior B. behaving improprely C. behaving nice D. behaving cleverly Question 24: There are number of things I like to do in my free time. A. pleasure B. precious C. busy D. idle Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 25: Children enjoy telling and listening to ghosts stories, especially on Halloween night. A B C D Trang 2/6 - Mã đề thi 235
3. Question 26: We had better to review this chapter carefully because we will have some questions on it on our test tomorrow. A B C D Question 27: Professor Jones said that a good way to improve your language are learning to practise it. A B C D Question 28: The Southeast Asian Games, also knowing as the SEA Games, is a biennial multi-sport A B event involving participants from the current eleven countries of Southeast Asia. C D Question 29: I high recommend this book for its beautiful language of description. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 30: A. events B. spirit C. Asian D. silver Question 31: A. wanted B. looked C. needed D. crooked Question 32: A. southern B. athlete C. both D. enthusiasm Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 33: A. father B. decide C. certain D. couple Question 34: A. documentary B. occupation C. competitive D. individual Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) for each of the following blanks. The 24th Southeast Asian Games was (35) _____ in Thailand from December 6 to December 16, 2007. The Thai Olympic Committee was (36) _____ the event to coincide with the commemoration of 80th birthday of King Bhumibol Adulyadej. Officials were studying the possibility of doing the events in multiple venues (37) _____ what had been done in Vietnam and the Philippines. It was (38) _____ sixth time Thailand hosted the SEA Games. Thailand hosted the 1959, 1967, 1975, 1985 and 1995 SEA Games. On 24 February 2006, northeast Thailand's Province authorities met to (39) _____ the 2007 SEA Games schedule, and progress on the province's under-construction US$65 million sports complex. The meeting provided an overview of (40) _____, and ended with reassurances that everything would be ready (41) _____ SEA Games in 2007. The sports (42) ____ included a 5,000-seater indoor stadium and 16 tennis court facilities among other facilities scheduled to be finished on June 2007. The 2007 SEA Games featured (43) _____ than 400 events in 45 sports. The 24th edition of the games had the highest number of sporting events in the entire (44) _____ of the SEA Games, more events than the Asian Games and the Olympic Games. Question 35: A. held B. met C. seen D. committed Question 36: A. winning B. competing C. fighting D. planning Question 37: A. such as B. as C. likely D. like Question 38: A. a B. an C. the D. Ø Question 39: A. talk B. discuss C. tell D. quarrel Question 40: A. facilities B. tools C. materials D. furniture Question 41: A. at B. on C. with D. for Question 42: A. places B. halls C. venues D. homes Question 43: A. rather B. more C. better D. as Question 44: A. history B. ancient C. former D. time Trang 3/6 - Mã đề thi 235
4. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology in college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the US Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life. Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year, she published The Sea around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her non-technical readers. In 1962, Carson published Silence Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds, and contaminate human food. At that time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee. Question 45: The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work ______. A. at college B. at the US Fish and Wildlife Service C. as a researcher D. as a writer Question 46: According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University? A. Zoology B. Literature C. History D. Oceanography Question 47: When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of ______. A. 29 B. 26 C. 34 D. 45 Question 48: It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind ______. A. became more popular than her other books B. was outdated C. was praised by critics D. sold many copies Question 49: Which of the following was not mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea Around Us? A. printed matter B. talks with experts C. letters from scientists D. a research expedition Question 50: Which of the following words or phrases is least accurate in describing The Sea Around Us? A. poetic B. fascinating C. highly technical D. well researched Question 51: The word reckless is closest in meaning to ______. A. irresponsible B. unnecessary C. continuous D. limited Question 52: According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily ______. A. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry B. a discussion of hazards insects pose to the food supply C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides D. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food Question 53: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word flawed? A. offensive B. logical C. deceptive D. faulty Question 54: Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee? A. To validate the chemical industry’s claims B. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment C. To support Carson’s ideas D. To provide an example of government propaganda Trang 4/6 - Mã đề thi 235
5. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Bears spend much of their time looking for food, and they are not choosy, gorging on insects, berries, nuts, small mammals, ham sandwiches, and garbage with equal relish. Despite this, the chief natural factor limiting a bear population is the food supply. Dr. Lynn Rogers has found that, contrary to popular belief, so-called garbage bears – those that visit town dumps or campsites – do not lose their ability to forage successfully for wild foods but are simply supplementing their diets with easy pickings. In fact, these enterprising bears grow faster, mature sooner, and reproduce earlier than those that depend only on wild foraging. Rogers has also found that dump-fed bears are the strongest and largest in the population. He and his crew once captured a male bear that weighed in at 611 pounds. But easy living for the bears carries a price: those that stalk garbage dumps are easier targets for hunters and those that visit camps – if not injure – visitors. Some state wildlife agencies capture “nuisance” bears that have become too chummy with people and cast them off to less populated parts of the forest. The removal programmes do not always work; bears released 100 miles or more from their place of capture have reappeared in their old haunts. Question 55: The passage suggests that Dr. Lynn Rogers is a _________. A. writer who has published books about bears’ feeding habits. B. naturalist whose concern is preserving bears’ wild habitats. C. scientist who has studied dump-fed bears. D. rapper who captures live bears for zoos. Question 56: The author states that which of the following assumptions about bears has been proved to be wrong? A. Some would rather eat wild foods than garbage. B. They devote a lot of time to searching for food. C. Some do not fear campers and approach campsites readily. D. They lose their foraging ability after feeding at garbage dumps. Question 57: Which of the following is NOT true of bears that feed at garbage dumps and campsites? A. They grow at a relatively slow rate B. They can be easily shot C. They reproduce at an early age D. They are sometimes relocated Question 58: It can be concluded from the passage that garbage bears are the strongest of the bear population because ________. A. their natural predators are not found near garbage dumps B. they can get more food by combining wild food and food from dumps C. they have been known to travel 100 miles or more D. they get a lot of exercise climbing in and out of garbage cans Question 59: The term “those” refers to _________. A. visitors B. dumps C. hunters D. bears Question 60: It can be inferred from the passage that bears’ contact with humans resulted in _________. A. bears’ preference for life in the wild B. both benefits and disadvantages to bears C. an increase likelihood of the extinction of bears D. bears’ susceptibility to a variety of diseases Question 61: According to the passage, the purpose of removal programme is to _________. A. clean out the dumps B. shoot “nuisance” bears C. settle bears in less populated areas D. reduce the bears’ food supply Question 62: The word “choosy” is closest in meaning to _________. A. funny B. fussy C. progressive D. risky Question 63: The word “captured” is closest in meaning to _________. A. hold B. caught C. produced D. released Question 64: The word “removal” is closest in meaning to ________. A. taking B. processing C. moving D. interfering Trang 5/6 - Mã đề thi 235
6. SECTION B (2 points) I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (0.5 points) Question 1: Joanna enjoys listening to rock music, so does her brother. Both______________________________________________________________________________ Question 2: We bought two bicycles. Neither of them worked well. We bought _________________________________________________________________________ Question 3: The couples who live in the house next door are both college professors. The couples living ___________________________________________________________________ Question 4: “You didn’t pay attention to what I said,” the teacher said to him The teacher accused _________________________________________________________________ Question 5: Tom arrived late and started complaining. Not only ___________________________________________________________________________ II. Write a paragraph of 140 words about one of your hobbies, following these guidelines. (1.5 points) • What your hobby is • When you started it • How you enjoy it • How much time you spend on it • Why you enjoy it • How long you think you will continue with your hobby/your plan in the future. --------- THE END -------- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm. Trang 6/6 - Mã đề thi 235